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SDEO PERA 2025 PPSC Solved MCQs – The Colonization of Government Lands (Punjab) Act, 1912 MCQS 2025

SDEO PERA 2025

The preparation of the SDEO PERA 2025 PPSC exam needs a clear comprehension of significant laws and acts that constitute Punjab jurisprudence. Specially significant among them is The Colonization of Government Lands (Punjab) Act, 1912. This Act came up in the colonial period and was proposed in order to control the settlement, management, and distribution of the government lands in Punjab. Although the government passified it over one hundred years ago, the Act continues to hold many fees today particularly to students and candidates when they face competitive exams administered by the Punjab Public Service Commission (PPSC).

The agency of a Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer (SDEO) under PERA 2025 requires a clear understanding of the regulatory and enforcement law in Punjab. They have to learn not only the fundamentals of the meaning, provisions, and purpose of Colonization of Government Lands Act, but also reproduce answers to multiple-choice questions (MCQs) with reliability and in a spur of the moment. The point of such MCQs is instead to check the clarity of concepts as well as recall of key passages, and practice is a crucial aspect of the enhancement of exam preparation.

We have just published 100 MCQs on The Colonization of Government Lands (Punjab) Act, 1912 that are solved, specifically designed to SDEO PERA 2025 applicants. Such questions are quite broad with some topics being:

  • The goals and range of the Act.
  • Explanations of the major terms employed in the Act.
  • Authority and jurisdiction of government.
  • Colonization, allotment, and management procedures of lands.
  • Allotment and tenancy rights and obligations.
  • Punishments and measures of aggression.

All MCQs are chosen and answered in a professional manner to boost the confidence of our candidates. When asked to practice these questions, the aspirants will not only refresh the Act but will also be able to enhance his/her methods of tackling the exams. Keep in mind that competition exams such as PPSC SDEO PERA 2025 are not only memorization of law but also the use of this law in different situations.

This complete set of MCQs will serve as a single exam preparation stop to any individual. The first time you revised the Act or even before you set the exam, these solved questions should help you to pass the test with higher scores than before.

Then, shall we start with the journey of mastering The Colonization of Government Lands (Punjab) Act, 1912 by entering the practice room organized, cleverly revising and learning?

SDEO PERA 2025 Colonization of Government Lands Punjab Act MCQs
SDEO PERA 2025 Colonization of Government Lands Punjab Act MCQs

 

 

 

1. What does the Punjab Act V of 1912, establish officially?

  • A. The Punjab Land Colonization Act, 1912
  • B. The Government Tenants Act, 1912
  • C. The Colonization of Government Lands (Punjab) Act, 1912
  • D. The Punjab Revenue Colonization Act, 1912

2. Which of the following earlier Acts was repealed by the Colonization of Government Lands (Punjab) Act, 1912?

  • A. The Punjab Tenancy Act, 1887
  • B. The Government Tenants (Punjab) Act, 1893
  • C. The Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1887
  • D. The Crown Grants Act, 1895

3. The expression ‘Collector’ under this Act includes:

  • A. Only the District Collector
  • B. District Collector and any officer appointed under the direction of the Provincial Government
  • C. The District Collector, any officer appointed by the Board of Revenue and certain Colonization Officers
  • D. Only officers appointed prior to the commencement of the Act

4. So what is a Colony in the context of this Act?

  • A. Any area which has a high population density
  • B. Any area to which the Act is applied by the Provincial Government which includes areas under the 1893 Act
  • C. Only the portion irrigated by the Chenab Canal
  • D. Any area government land is available for auction

5. An “Improvement” under the Act does NOT include:

  • A. Construction of wells for water storage
  • B. Clearings and levellings effected by tenants, during the ordinary course of cultivation
  • C. Planting of trees and land reclamation
  • D. Construction of buildings to cultivate profitably

6. Who is considered an “Original Tenant”?

  • A. The first person to buy into the land
  • B. The first allottee by the Collector, male, his male transferee, or male nominated to succeed female allottee
  • C. Any tenant who is in possession of any land for more than 10 years
  • D. The head of the family based on whom the land was allotted

7. The Act applies to all land excepting:

  • A. Lands held in private ownership
  • B. Tribal Areas of the Punjab
  • C. Lands irrigated by private waterways
  • D. Urban areas; municipal limits

8. The Punjab Tenancy Act 1887 should, in general:

  • A. Entirely applicable to tenancies which fall under this Act
  • B. Not applicable in the case of tenancies for which this Act does not apply except as provided under Section 7
  • C. May be used only upon request of the tenant
  • D. Only holds for disputes between tenants in government.

9. When can a person be considered to be a tenant with rights in the lot provided?

  • A. As soon as the announcement of an allotment is made
  • B. Only after a written order is passed and he makes possession with the Collector’s permission
  • C. After paying the first installment of the purchase money
  • D. After mutation is entered in the revenue record

10. The grant of a tenancy by a statement of conditions is governed by:

  • A. The Transfer of Property Act, 1882
  • B. The Crown Grants Act, 1895
  • C. The Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1967
  • D. The Registration Act, 1908

11. A condition imposing residence is not breached by:

  • A. Permanent migration to another city
  • B. leasing out the land and moving away
  • C. Temporary absence after having established a permanent habitation in the estate
  • D. Failing to construct house on residential plot

12. The rights of a tenant under this Act:

  • A. Can be easily sold in the open market
  • B. Attached and sold by any Civil Court
  • C. Cannot be attached or sold in appeal of any court decree
  • D. Can be only transferred with the permission of the village patwari

13. A tenant transferring his rights without written consent is:

  • A. Valid if registered
  • B. Valid after 7 years
  • C. Hollow, and the transferee can be ejected
  • D. Applicable only to occupancy tenants

14. Succession to the tenancy of a Muslim tenant is regulated by:

  • A. Customary Law
  • B. Muslim Personal Law (shariat)
  • C. The order of succession as listed on the Section 20
  • D. The unauthorized discretion of the Collector

15. According to Section 20, the first right of succession for the first original tenant then lays with the underitem of:

  • A. The widow
  • B. the male lineal descendants in the male line
  • C. The nominated successor
  • D. The unmarried daughters

16. A tenant may nominate a successor from among:

  • A. Anyone they choose
  • B. Only their direct sons
  • C. Specific relatives mentioned in Section 20(d): e.g. mother, sister, daughter’s son, etc.
  • D. Only male agnates of family

17. A nomination of a successor can be cancelled:

  • A. Orally before two witnesses
  • B. Not at all once made
  • C. By a registered deed
  • D. Only by permission of the Collector

18. Before he imposes a penalty or continues a tenancy for a breach the Collector must:

  • A. Obtain permission of the Board of Revenue
  • B. Give a notice to the tenant to correct the breach within a reasonable period (if possible)
  • C. File a Civil Court case
  • D. Get the consent of the village panchayat

19. The maximum penalty which may be assessed by a Collector for violations of conditions is:

  • A. Rs. 5,000
  • B. Rs. 10,000
  • C. Rs. 100,000
  • D. Rs. 200,000

20. On termination of a tenancy resumption, the departing tenant is entitled to recompense for:

  • A. The market value of the land
  • B. Uncut Crop and Improvements made
  • C. Loss of expected income
  • D. The value of the rights of tenancy

21. All sums due to the Government under such Act can be recovered as:

  • A. A debt payable to a bank
  • B. Arrears of land revenue
  • C. A fine levied by a court of law conveying a criminal case
  • D. A private contract debt

22. The power to abrogate any conditions imposed on tenants is vested in:

  • A. The Provincial Government
  • B. The Board of Revenue (subject to general govt. approval)
  • C. The Executive District Officer (Revenue)
  • D. The Collector

23. A tenant who purchases full rights to use ceases to be subject to the original statement of conditions but is bound by:

  • A. The Punjab Tenancy Act, 1887
  • B. Customary Law
  • C. Conditions laid down in Schedule II of this Act
  • D. No conditions whatsoever

24. If the proprietary rights are acquired by fraud, the Board Of Revenue can:

  • A. Only impose a fine
  • B. Tilly the land or diminish its area
  • C. Transfer the rights to the rightful heir
  • D. File a criminal case but not resume the land

25. The rights of alienation of a female acquiring proprietary rights the same as if:

  • A. She were an absolute owner
  • B. The rights had been obtained by the last male tenant/person and she had succeeded as his heir
  • C. She were a tenant to the Act
  • D. The property was her own stridhan

26. Mares or camels kept under a prescription are safe from:

  • A. Being sold by the owner
  • B. obedience of attachment or sale in execution of a decree
  • C. Paying tax to the government
  • D. Being exchanged without permission

27. The penalty provided in the law for unauthorised cultivation of government land can be:

  • A. A fine only
  • B. Imprisonment only
  • C. Fine up to rupees 200 000 or imprisonment for 6 months or both
  • D. Only seizing of the crop

28. In addition to prosecution, the Collector can, for an offense under Section 33:

  • A. Auctioneer the offender’s property
  • B. Relevant actions include confiscation of crops, recovery of value of trees, demolition of encroachments
  • C. institute a personal tax on the offender
  • D. Exile the offender out of the colony

29. The jurisdiction of Civil Courts is barred in matters:

  • A. Under any revenue law
  • B. Which the Collector is empowered by this Act, and to dispose of under this Act
  • C. Linked to criminal offences
  • D. Of inheritance and succession

30. None suits a public servant for anything done:

  • A. Under any circumstances
  • B. In good faith under this Act
  • C. ByPermission of the Board of Revenue
  • D. That causes loss to a tenant

31. The term ‘Prescribed’ as used in the Act is ‘sanctioned by the’ :

  • A. Provincial Government
  • B. Board of Revenue
  • C. Collector
  • D. Executive District Officer (Revenue)

32. The record treated as equivalent to the register under the Act of 1893 is as follows:

  • A. The Jamabandi
  • B. The record-of-rights or the yearly record
  • C. The Roznamcha
  • D. The Fard Badar

33. A purchaser from Government put in possession is considered a tenant until:

  • A. The sale deed is registered
  • B. Full purchase money and interest is paid
  • C. The first harvest is taken
  • D. The Collector issues a proprietary certificate

34. Giving false information to qualify as a tenant is termed:

  • A. A criminal offence under the Penal Code of Pakistan
  • B. A breach of conditions of tenancy
  • C. A non-cognizable offense
  • D. Punishable only by a warning

35. The Collector has the power to permit a tenant to exchange land subject to the approval of the:

  • A. Board of Revenue
  • B. Executive District Officer (Revenue)
  • C. Provincial Government
  • D. Village Committee

36. For a tenant not having rights of occupancy the maximum allowed period for sub-letting is:

  • A. 3 years
  • B. 1 year
  • C. 5 years
  • D. 7 years

37. For a tenant with tenancy in land rights, the maximum allowable period of sub-lease is:

  • A. 3 years
  • B. 1 year
  • C. 5 years
  • D. 7 years

38. The proviso to Section 19 is that the right to sub-let does not free the tenant from:

  • A. Paying land revenue
  • B. A condition of dwelling in the Estate
  • C. The obligation of planting trees
  • D. Paying water charges

39. Succession to a female tenant (first allottee) who dies devolved on:

  • A. Her heirs as per personal law
  • B. A successor nominated by the Collector from from her issue or from the male agnates of the person on whose account the tenancy was allotted
  • C. Her husband
  • D. The Government

40. The acquiring of ownership of a tenant does not affect the rights of a:

  • A. Mortgagee
  • B. nominated successor (where not stated in the deed)
  • C. Sub-tenant
  • D. Creditor

41. Provisions for re-entry and compensation for buildings on residential sites are provided in:

  • A. Section 24
  • B. Section 25
  • C. Section 26
  • D. Section 27

42. Sections 24, 25 and 26 do not apply to tenancies of:

  • A. Tenants of the Lower Bari Doab Colony as a whole
  • B. Camel owners tenants village headmen, etc. based on Schedule I
  • C. Tenants who have acquired Proprietary Rights
  • D. Tenants holding less than 10 years

43. The power to impose cess for common village expenses may be exercised by the Collector on application executed by in.

  • A. The Provincial Government
  • B. The Board of Revenue
  • C. Most of the tenants and owners of the estate
  • D. The Village Panchayat

44. Any cess levied under S. 35 is recoverable in the form of:

  • A. A Contract Act debt
  • B. Arrears of land revenue
  • C. A tax under the Income Tax Ordinance
  • D. Fine imposed by a Magistrate

45. Acts or orders, done or passed by officers prior to the commencement of this Act, are legalized if:

  • A. Those that were approved by the Financial Commissioner
  • B. Are not contrary to the provisions of this Act
  • C. They were done according to the custom
  • D. The affected tenant does not object

46. Schedule I of the Act provides a list of:

  • A. Conditions of tenancy
  • B. Excepted tenancies (sections do not applies to these)
  • C. Rates of land revenue
  • D. Punishments for various offences

47. Schedule II of the Act provides conditions which bind a:

  • A. New tenant
  • B. Grantee who has taken proprietary right
  • C. Tree-planting tenant
  • D. Village headman

48. According to Schedule II, the Government is reserved the right to

  • A. Learn back the land at any time;
  • B. All mine(s) Minerals and easements in the land
  • C. 50% of the produce from the land
  • D. Increase a tax on the land

49. A grantee must allow servants of the State to come upon his land to

  • A. Assess the crop yield
  • B. Look for/deal in minerals
  • C. Take a headcount of animals
  • D. Review his financial records

50. Reserved rights Any dispute between the Provincial Government and a grantee in relation to reserved rights is referred to the:

  • A. Civil Court
  • B. Executive District Officer (Revenue)
  • C. Board of Revenue
  • D. Provincial Ombudsman

51. The Act came into force on

  • A. 1st January 1913
  • B. 12th August 1896
  • C. 21st June 1912
  • D. 1st July 1912

52. Local extent of the Act covers:

  • A. Only the canal colonies
  • B. The entire of Punjab excluding the Tribal Areas
  • C. The whole of Pakistan
  • D. Only the districts in which there is government land

53. The term ‘tenant’ includes:

  • A. Only the current allottee
  • B. The predecessors and successors in interest of a tenant
  • C. Only those who personally cultivate the land
  • D. Sub-tenants and mortgagees

54. The power to extend this Act to any land belonging to the government is with the:

  • A. Board of Revenue
  • B. Provincial Government
  • C. Revenue Executive District Officer
  • D. Collector

55. The right to take [a colony] from the operation of the Act this is vested in the:

  • A. Board of Revenue
  • B. Provincial Government
  • C. Executive District Officer (Rev.
  • D. Collector

56. The operations under this Act are governed by the suggestive act, i.e., Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1967.

  • A. In its entirety
  • B. Since the provisions of this Act
  • C. solely upon specification of the Collector
  • D. For issues of succession only

57. The statement of conditions on which government is willing to take land is issued by:

  • A. Board of Revenue
  • B. Provincial Government
  • C. Executive District Officer (Revenue)
  • D. Collector

58. Actual allotment of land to a person is done by the:

  • A. Board of Revenue
  • B. Provincial Government
  • C. Executive District Officer (Revenue)
  • D. Collector

59. A tenant holding land under the 1893 Act is deemed to hold it under the statement of conditions issued under that Act, unless he is a non-Muslim who:

  • A. Files an appeal in court
  • B. Special executs and registra ein deed within 12 months declaring succession as per the conditions
  • C. Takes leave of the Collector
  • D. Was in possession for more than 20 years

60. The power of the Collector to resume a tenancy under Section 24 is:

  • A. Absolute and it cannot be challenged
  • B. Subject to giving the tenant an opportunity to be heard
  • C. Exercisable only with the consent of the Board of Revenue
  • D. For non-payment related to only revenue-related breaches

61. Compensation if there is a resumption of tenancy is payable for:

  • A. The land itself
  • B. Uncut and crops and improvements
  • C. Loss of Profit in Future Five years
  • D. The tenant’s pain and suffering

62. If re-allocation of a terminated tenancy (resumed tenancy) is re-let at, the compensation for the outgoing tenant can be recovered from the:

  • A. Provincial Government
  • B. Incoming tenant
  • C. Village common fund
  • D. Board of Revenue

63. The felling of trees planted by an owner on a village road travelling through his holding:

  • A. A serious offense
  • B. Not an offense under the section 33
  • C. An offense only if done without the government’s permission
  • D. An offense only if the trees are above 10 years

64. The value of trees destroyed in contravention of the Act can be:

  • A. Waived by the Collector
  • B. Recovered by the Collector from the offender
  • C. Claimed via civil suit
  • D. Adjusted against land revenue in future years

65. The expenses of the destruction of the unauthorized building can be:

  • A. Written off under Government
  • B. Collected from the individual responsible for act
  • C. Recovered from Village fund
  • D. Provided for by the Provincial Government

66. The Act gives immunity from liability to public servants with respect to acts done:

  • A. Under any circumstances
  • B. In good faith under this Act
  • C. With mal intent but no personal gain
  • D. By the Order of a Superior Officer

67. A right of occupancy shall not be defeated because:

  • A. The tenant was a minor at the date of allotment
  • B. The prescribed register was not signed by the tenant
  • C. The land was not measured properly
  • D. The tenant did not pay the initial deposit

68. Branches of the Chenab Canal when falling within the scope of Section 27 are as follows:

  • A. Lower and Upper
  • B. Rakh and Mia Ali
  • C. Rasul and Qadirabad
  • D. Trimmu and Sidhnai

69. The Board of Revenue can subjugate back the land acquired fraudulently after:

  • A. Filing a FIR
  • B. Getting a court order
  • C. Providing the person with a reasonable opportunity to show cause
  • D. Getting the Federal Government on board

70. The terms ‘servant of the State retained the older term:

  • A. Servant of the Crown
  • B. Officer of the Crown
  • C. Government Servant
  • D. Crown Agent

71. Maximum fine of the offence under Section 33 was raised to Rs 200,000 by an amendment in:

  • A. 1969
  • B. 1983
  • C. 1999
  • D. 2001

72. The name ‘Financial Commissioner’ was changed to:

  • A. Commissioner
  • B. Board of Revenue
  • C. Officer of the Executive District (Revenue)
  • D. Director General Revenue

73. The term ‘Commissioner’ was then replaced by:

  • A. Board of Revenue
  • B. Executive District Officer (Revenue)
  • C. District Collector
  • D. Additional Secretary Revenue

74. The objective of the Act is, as laid down in its preamble, to make better provision for the:

  • A. Sale of government lands to the highest bidder
  • B. Colonisation and administration of Government lands in the Punjab
  • C. Settlement of disputes between tenant and landlord
  • D. Collection of land revenue in the canal colonies

75. A tenant can be ejected by the Collector if found to be a:

  • A. Squatter or trespasser
  • B. Defaulting revenue payer
  • C. Person who sub-lets his land
  • D. Person who doesn’t dwell on the land

76. No compensation is due when the Collector re-enters land under section 32 against:

  • A. Tenent who has breached a condition
  • B. A squatter or trespasser
  • C. A tenant who not pay revenue
  • D. A proprietor that does not plant trees

77. The power to make rules given under the Act lies in the:

  • A. Provincial Government
  • B. Board of Revenue
  • C. Revenue, Executive District Officer
  • D. Collector

78. The statement of conditions applicable to tenancy, if the register is unsigned, is deemed to be:

  • A. The one chosen by the tenant
  • B. The one existing in respect of similar tenancies at the date of allotment
  • C. That provided by the Patwari
  • D. Null and void

79. The Act of 1893 was also known as:

  • A. Punjab Act XVI of 1887
  • B. Act III of 1893
  • C. The Crown Grants Act
  • D. The Colonization Act

80. The document which has the legal effect of a grant under the Crown Grants Act is the:

  • A. Allotment order
  • B. Statement of conditions
  • C. Sale deed
  • D. Possession certificate

81. The succession rules under Sections 20-23 do not apply to tenancies of:

  • A. Muslims
  • B. The tenants included in Schedule I
  • C. Tenants who have obtained ownership
  • D. Tenants of Lower Sohag Para Colony

82. Limited owner female-Era Educational owner loses her interest on account of:

  • A. Selling the property
  • B. Marriage or remarriage
  • C. Leaving the country
  • D. Not cultivating the land

83. The ‘male agnate members’ referred to in Section 20(d) means:

  • A. Mother’s relatives
  • B. Male relatives by blood through male line
  • C. All male members of the village
  • D. Sons-in-law and brothers-in-law

84. The main reason why Civil Court jurisdiction is barred (S.36) is to:

  • A. Lighten the burden of courts
  • B. Ensure speedy and specialized disposal of matters by revenue authorities
  • C. Immunize government officials from litigation
  • D. Encourage arbitration

85. The Act regularised previous orders passed by:

  • A. Any government official
  • B. Colonization Officers, Assistant Colonization Officers or Settlement Commissioners
  • C. Zaildars and Lambardars
  • D. Officials of Municipal Committees

86. If an adopted son is a member of the term ‘lineal descendants’ for purposes of succession if:

  • A. The adoption being prominent in the village
  • B. The adoption is based upon a registered deed
  • C. The Collector approves the adoption
  • D. The consent of the natural parents is obtained

87. The compensation for damage caused by the Government exercising its reserved rights is assessed by the:

  • A. Civil Court
  • B. Collector
  • C. Board of Revenue
  • D. Executive District Officer (Revenue)

88. An appeal against the Collector’s assessment of compensation under Schedule II lies against to:

  • A. Board of Revenue
  • B. Revenue District Officer Executive
  • C. Provincial Government
  • D. Civil Court

89. The width of the thoroughfare to be set up for public use on either side of a survey base line is:

  • A. 1 Kadam
  • B. 1½ Kadams
  • C. 2 Kadams
  • D. 3 Kadams

90. The power to make a class of tenancies ‘scheduled tenancies’ lies with the:

  • A. Board of Revenue
  • B. Provincial Government
  • C. Executive District Officer (Revenue)
  • D. Collector

91. The Act ensures that the general laws of tenancy do not prevail over the:

  • A. Customs of the area
  • B. Earlier conditions entered in statement of conditions
  • C. Orders of the Collector
  • D. Orders passed by the Board of Revenue

92. The principal legal document specifying the relationship between the government and the tenant is the:

  • A. Punjab Land Revenue Act
  • B. Statement of conditions
  • C. Allotment order
  • D. Tenancy agreement

93. A tenant’s rights can be best described as:

  • A. Heritable
  • B. Heritable and not transferable
  • C. Transferable but not heritable
  • D. Neither inheritable nor transable

94. Some of the overall theme of the Act is to:

  • A. Propagate free market for sale of government land
  • B. Establish a stable, disciplined and revenue-producing agricultural community
  • C. Give absolute ownership to tenants from the onset
  • D. Replace the customary laws with statutory law

95. The Act is classic example of:

  • A. Criminal law
  • B. Administrative law
  • C. Revenue law
  • D. Contract law

96. One important difference between the 1893 Act and the 1912 Act is the 1912 Act’s:

  • A. Simpler language
  • B. Detailed and recorded rules of succession
  • C. Focus on urban land
  • D. Elimination of all conditions

97. The amendment that went in for Muslim Personal Law for succession was made in:

  • A. 1920
  • B. 1951
  • C. 1969
  • D. 2001

98. The amendment that brought the definition of ‘Original Tenant’ was given in:

  • A. 1920
  • B. 1941
  • C. 1944
  • D. 1951

99. For the case of a female limited owner the matter is disposed of primarily in:

  • A. Section 20
  • B. Section 19-A
  • C. Section 30-A
  • D. Schedule II

100. The Act gives the Collector the role of a:

  • A. Judge in a criminal trial
  • B. Quasi-judicial authority in matters under the Act
  • C. Representative of the tenant
  • D. Legal adviser to the Government

Conclusion

The 100 MCQs solved ( The Colonization of Government Lands, 1912 ) are well-designed to help you not only build your conceptual understanding of The Colonization of Government Lands, 1912, but also retain it in your memory, just in time to pass the PPSC SDEO PERA 2025 examination. These questions will help candidates review the major points of the Act, such as the idea of the law itself and the extent of its impact, the authority of government agencies, rights of tenants, and the enforcement of the Act.

It is important to remember that the competitive exams are not solely rote based, but also demand the capability of transferring the legal principles onto the practical case. These MCQs will be used regularly to detect weak areas, time management and confidence in performing better on the examination day. It is a complete preparation hub whether you are reading the Act first time or in a final revision.

These MCQs are serious and should be revisited, and one should continue to test oneself. Practicing smart and structured is your key to a better score and definitely passing the SDEO PERA 2025 exam.

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