PERA Act 2024 MCQs - The Success Station

Punjab Enforcement and Regulation Act, 2024 (PERA) is comprehensive legislation that will make sure that there is proper regulation, enforcement and control throughout the province. Candidates studying for exams such as Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer (SDEO) or Enforcement Officer should know the Act’s provisions well.

This post presents Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) on the Act, focusing on Chapters I to V. You’ll see topics such as:

Preliminary definitions
Creation of the Punjab Enforcement and Regulatory Authority
District Enforcement and Regulatory Board
Duties of the Hearing Officer
Design of Enforcement Stations

Every question comes with an explanation. This way, the candidate can check their knowledge and grasp why the answers are correct.

The organizers set up the MCQs based on the main parts of the Act. This helps make learning simpler and better for exams. This book will help you prepare for competitive tests and promotions. Whether you’re studying for PERA Act 2024 mcq’s or want to boost your legal knowledge, this is the right choice.

PERA ACT 2024 - The Success Station — **PERA ACT 2024 – The Success Station**

Punjab Enforcement and Regulation Act, 2024 MCQs

1. What is the official short title of this Act?

A. Punjab Regulatory Act 2024
B. Punjab Enforcement and Regulation Act 2024
C. Punjab Enforcement Authority Act 2024
D. Punjab Public Nuisance Act 2024

Section 1(1) of the Act provides the official short title. This is the formal name by which the legislation is to be cited and referenced in all legal and official documents.

2. The Act extends to:

A. Only the major cities of Punjab
B. The areas notified by the Federal Government
C. The whole of the Punjab
D. Only the rural areas of Punjab

As per Section 1(2), the territorial jurisdiction of this Act is comprehensive and encompasses the entire province of Punjab, leaving no area outside its purview unless specified otherwise.

3. According to Section 2(1)(o), what does “encroachment” include?

A. Only permanent structures on private property
B. Only temporary structures on State property
C. Any interference with or intrusion into State property, including permanent/temporary structures or moveable objects
D. Only illegal occupation of residential buildings

The definition is intentionally broad to cover all forms of unauthorized use of State property. This includes both physical structures and any movable objects placed without permission, ensuring wide-ranging enforcement capability.

4. The “Code” as defined in the Act refers to:

A. The Pakistan Penal Code, 1860
B. The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898
C. The Civil Procedure Code, 1908
D. The Constitution of Pakistan

Section 2(1)(g) specifically defines the “Code” as the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1898. This is crucial as many procedures for arrest, investigation, and bail under this Act are governed by this Code.

5. An “illegal occupier” under the Act includes:

A. Only a trespasser with no prior connection to the property
B. A lessee or licensee who continues occupation after the expiry of their lease/license
C. A tenant who is paying rent on time
D. A person with a legal allotment letter

Section 2(1)(y) provides an expansive definition. It targets not just squatters but also those who overstay their legal welcome, ensuring that all forms of unauthorized occupation are covered under the Act.

6. “Public Nuisance” is not excused on the ground that it:

A. Is done by a government official
B. Was committed at night
C. Causes some convenience or advantage
D. Is a common practice

The proviso in Section 2(1)(kk) establishes that an act cannot be defended as a public nuisance simply because it offers some benefit. The focus remains on the common injury, danger, or annoyance caused to the public.

7. The term “Scheduled laws” means:

A. All laws of Pakistan
B. Laws made by the Punjab Assembly
C. The laws mentioned in the Schedule appended to the Act
D. Federal laws applicable to Punjab

Sections 2(1)(rr) and (ss) define these terms. The Act’s enforcement powers are specifically targeted towards the laws listed in the Schedule at the end of the document, such as hoarding and price control acts.

8. The Authority established under the Act is a:

A. Department of the Punjab Government
B. Federal regulatory body
C. Body corporate with perpetual succession and a common seal
D. Non-profit organization

Section 3(2) grants the Authority a legal personality separate from the government. This allows it to own property, enter into contracts, and sue or be sued in its own name, ensuring operational autonomy.

9. Where is the headquarters of the Authority located?

A. Islamabad
B. Faisalabad
C. Multan
D. Lahore

Section 3(3) designates Lahore as the seat of the Authority’s headquarters. It also allows the Authority to establish offices in other areas as deemed appropriate for its functioning.

10. Who is the Chairperson of the Authority?

A. Chief Secretary, Punjab
B. Chief Minister, Punjab
C. Director General of the Authority
D. Senior Member, Board of Revenue

The composition in Section 4(1)(a) places the highest elected official of the province, the Chief Minister, as the head of the Authority, signaling the political importance and high priority given to this regulatory body.

11. Who is the Vice-Chairperson of the Authority?

A. Chief Minister, Punjab
B. Chief Secretary, Punjab
C. Provincial Police Officer
D. Secretary, Home Department

As per Section 4(1)(b), the Chief Secretary, the highest-ranking bureaucratic official in the province, is the Vice-Chairperson. This ensures administrative oversight and coordination with all government departments.

12. How many independent members are part of the Authority’s composition?

A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five

Section 4(1)(l) specifies four independent members. The inclusion of independent members is aimed at bringing impartiality and diverse expertise from outside the government to the Authority’s decision-making.

13. The independent members of the Authority are appointed for a term of:

A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years

Section 4(5) sets a fixed three-year term to provide stability and independence. However, they serve at the pleasure of the Government, meaning their term can be terminated prematurely.

14. The Selection Panel for independent members consists of:

A. Serving public servants
B. Elected representatives
C. Three persons, other than serving public servants or elected representatives
D. Judges of the High Court

Section 5(1) mandates that the Selection Panel be composed of individuals from outside the government and political sphere. This is to ensure a neutral, unbiased, and merit-based selection process.

15. Who nominates the members of the Selection Panel?

A. The Chief Secretary
B. The Chief Justice of Lahore High Court
C. The Chief Minister
D. The Authority itself

The power to nominate the neutral Selection Panel rests with the Chief Minister under Section 5(1). This centralizes the initial appointment responsibility with the provincial executive head.

16. Which of the following disqualifies a person from becoming an independent member?

A. Being over 60 years of age
B. Having been a public servant in the six months preceding appointment
C. Having a political opinion
D. Being a retired judge

Section 6(2)(a) imposes a “cooling-off” period. This prevents recently retired bureaucrats or public representatives from immediately joining the Authority, safeguarding against potential conflicts of interest.

17. The quorum for a meeting of the Authority is:

A. One-third of the total members
B. One-half of the total members
C. Two-thirds of the total members
D. Three-fourths of the total members

Section 7(3) sets the quorum at 50% of the total membership. This ensures that decisions are made with the participation of a significant portion of the Authority and not by a small minority.

18. Who has the casting vote in a meeting of the Authority in case of a tie?

A. The Director General
B. The oldest member
C. The person presiding over the meeting
D. The Secretary, Finance Department

Section 7(5) grants the casting vote to the presiding officer (Chairperson or their designate). This mechanism breaks deadlocks and ensures the meeting can proceed to a decision.

19. The Director General is appointed by:

A. The Chief Secretary
B. The Authority
C. The Chief Minister
D. The Selection Panel

Section 8(1) vests the power of appointing the chief executive officer (Director General) of the Authority directly in the Chief Minister, underscoring the role’s significance.

20. The Director General must be an officer of Basic Scale:

A. 17 or above
B. 19 or above
C. 20 or above
D. 21 or above

This requirement under Section 8(1) ensures that a very senior and experienced officer from the Pakistan Administrative Service or Provincial Management Service leads the Authority’s day-to-day operations.

21. The Authority can delegate its powers and functions to all EXCEPT:

A. The Director General
B. Chairperson of the Board
C. Its Authorized Officer
D. The Chief Minister

Section 10(3) lists the delegatees. The Chief Minister is the appointing authority and exists outside the Authority’s hierarchical structure, hence cannot be a recipient of delegated powers from the Authority itself.

22. Who is the Chairperson of the District Enforcement and Regulatory Board?

A. District Police Officer
B. Deputy Commissioner
C. Additional Deputy Commissioner (General)
D. District Public Prosecutor

As per Section 12(1)(a), the Deputy Commissioner, the chief executive officer of the district, chairs the Board. This ensures district-level coordination and execution of the Authority’s policies.

23. Who acts as the Member/Secretary of the District Board?

A. Deputy Commissioner
B. District Police Officer
C. Additional Deputy Commissioner (General)
D. A nominated expert

Section 12(1)(f) designates the Additional Deputy Commissioner (General) as the Member/Secretary. This officer is responsible for the board’s secretarial functions, including convening meetings and maintaining records.

24. The quorum for a meeting of the Board is:

A. One-third of the total members
B. One-half of the total members
C. Two-thirds of the total members
D. Three members

Mirroring the Authority’s quorum requirement, Section 12(5) sets the quorum for the District Board at half of its total members, ensuring adequate representation for decision-making.

25. The primary responsibility for performing secretariat functions for the Board lies with the:

A. Chairperson
B. Secretary (Additional Deputy Commissioner)
C. District Police Officer
D. Director General

Section 12(10) explicitly assigns the responsibility for secretariat functions and providing secretarial support to the Board to the Secretary, i.e., the Additional Deputy Commissioner (General).

26. Who appoints the Hearing Officer?

A. The District Board
B. The Government
C. The Authority
D. The Chief Minister

Section 16(1) clearly states that the power to appoint or authorize a Hearing Officer rests with the central Authority, not with the district-level bodies or the government directly.

27. What is the minimum Basic Scale required for a Hearing Officer?

A. 16
B. 17
C. 18
D. 19

Section 16(1) mandates that a Hearing Officer must be a senior officer of Basic Scale 17 or above from the Pakistan Administrative Service or Provincial Management Service, ensuring they have sufficient experience and authority.

28. Within how many days can a representation be filed before the Hearing Officer from the accruing of the cause of action?

A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 45 days
D. 60 days

Section 16(2) provides a 30-day statutory limitation period for filing a representation. This creates a balance between allowing aggrieved persons time to appeal and ensuring timely resolution of enforcement actions.

29. A representation can be filed against all of the following EXCEPT:

A. A fine imposed by an Enforcement Officer
B. Confiscation of articles
C. A decision of the High Court
D. Sealing of any premises

Section 16(2) lists specific administrative actions under the Act that can be appealed. Decisions of the High Court are judicial orders and cannot be challenged in an administrative hearing under this Act.

30. Which of the following is a power of the Hearing Officer?

A. To try criminal cases
B. To appoint Enforcement Officers
C. To issue an Absolute Order in furtherance of an EPO
D. To make rules under the Act

Section 16(4)(l) explicitly grants this power. An Absolute Order is a final, enforceable order that follows the initial Emergency Prohibition Order (EPO), and its issuance is a key function of the Hearing Officer.

31. For deciding a representation, the Hearing Officer can consider which aggravating factor?

A. The offender’s political affiliation
B. The gravity and duration of the offence
C. The offender’s family background
D. The time of day the offence was committed

Section 16(5)(a) lists objective factors related to the nature of the offence itself. The gravity and duration are relevant considerations for determining the proportionality of a penalty.

32. Which law of evidence is explicitly stated as not applicable to hearings under this Act?

A. Pakistan Penal Code
B. Qanun-e-Shahadat, 1984
C. Code of Criminal Procedure
D. Punjab Evidence Act

Section 17(1) states that the strict rules of evidence under Qanun-e-Shahadat, 1984 do not apply. This allows hearings to be conducted summarily and with flexibility, focusing on expediency rather than procedural technicalities.

33. Proceedings before the Hearing Officer may be:

A. Only recorded in writing
B. Audio-video recorded
C. Conducted in camera always
D. Not recordable

Section 17(2) permits audio-video recording of proceedings. This serves the dual purpose of ensuring transparency in the hearing process and maintaining a reliable record for future reference or appeal.

34. Enforcement Stations are established at which level?

A. Provincial Level
B. District Level
C. Sub-division Level
D. Union Council Level

Sections 19(1) and (2) indicate that Enforcement Stations are established at the sub-division level. This creates a widespread network of field offices for effective ground-level enforcement across the province.

35. Who declares a place to be an Enforcement Station?

A. The Authority
B. The District Board
C. The Government
D. The Director General

The power to officially establish or declare an Enforcement Station via notification in the official Gazette rests with the Provincial Government under Section 19(1), giving it legal sanctity.

36. What is the minimum Basic Scale for a Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer?

A. 14
B. 15
C. 16
D. 17

Section 19(3)(a) sets a high seniority threshold for the officer in charge of an Enforcement Station. A Basic Scale 16 officer is a senior-level bureaucrat, ensuring experienced leadership at the sub-division level.

37. What is the minimum Basic Scale for an Enforcement Officer?

A. 11
B. 12
C. 13
D. 14

Section 19(3)(b) specifies that Enforcement Officers must be at least Basic Scale 14 officers. This ensures they are mid-level career officers with sufficient experience and authority to perform their wide-ranging field duties.

38. Employees of Enforcement Stations must:

A. Work in plain clothes
B. Wear a prescribed uniform and display identification
C. Only operate during night hours
D. Report directly to the Chief Minister

Section 19(5) mandates a uniform and visible identification. This is critical for ensuring the employees are easily recognizable as authority figures, promoting accountability and preventing impersonation.

39. A requisition for support from an Enforcement Station is sent to the Secretary of the Board through the:

A. Director General
B. Concerned Hearing Officer
C. District Police Officer
D. Chief Secretary

Section 20(1) establishes this specific channel of communication. The Hearing Officer acts as a filter and facilitator between the field station (Enforcement Station) and the district body (Board).

40. The incharge of an Enforcement Station is the:

A. Enforcement Officer
B. Investigation Officer
C. Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer
D. Sergeant

Section 22(3) explicitly names the Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer as the incharge. This creates a clear chain of command and single-point responsibility for the operations of each Enforcement Station.

41. Which of the following is a power of the Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer?

A. To frame regulations
B. To register FIRs and conduct investigations as per CrPC
C. To hear representations against fines
D. To amend the Schedule

Section 22(4)(f) grants police-like powers to the Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer, allowing them to initiate formal criminal proceedings under the Code of Criminal Procedure for offences under the Act.

42. An Enforcement Officer can enter and inspect a private property:

A. At any time without any restriction
B. Subject to a warrant or order from the Magistrate
C. Only with the permission of the local police
D. Only if the offence is related to public nuisance

Section 23(4)(b) draws a crucial distinction. While they have broad powers for public property, entry into private property requires judicial oversight (a warrant from a Magistrate), protecting citizens’ privacy rights.

43. Which of the following is a power of an Enforcement Officer?

A. To appoint Investigation Officers
B. To issue an Absolute Order
C. To issue an Emergency Prohibition Order (EPO)
D. To approve the budget of the Authority

Section 23(4)(xvi) explicitly grants this power. An EPO is an immediate, on-the-spot order to stop a public nuisance or violation, making it a key tool for prompt enforcement action.

44. While performing duties, an Enforcement Officer may:

A. Wear a body camera
B. Ignore directives from the Hearing Officer
C. Impose fines without any pecuniary limits
D. Amend the Act

Section 23(5) allows for the use of body cameras. This modern provision aims to ensure transparency, record evidence, and protect both the officer and the public from false allegations during enforcement actions.

45. The Government can confer additional powers of a police officer on enforcement officers, except:

A. Powers of investigation
B. Powers of arrest
C. The powers mentioned in Chapter V
D. Powers of search

Section 24 allows the Government to add more powers but prohibits it from modifying the core powers already explicitly granted to these officers under Chapter V of the Act itself.

46. It is the duty of an Enforcement Officer to promptly report arrests to the:

A. Chief Minister
B. Hearing Officer through the Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer
C. District Police Officer directly
D. Home Secretary

The proviso in Section 25(d) creates a specific reporting line. This ensures judicial oversight (through the Hearing Officer) and internal accountability (through the SDE) for every arrest made, safeguarding against unlawful detention.

47. What is the minimum Basic Scale for an Investigation Officer?

A. 07
B. 09
C. 11
D. 14

Section 19(3)(c) sets the seniority level for Investigation Officers at Basic Scale 11. This ensures they are officers with significant experience to handle the sensitive task of investigations, which can lead to arrests and prosecutions.

48. An Investigation Officer can search a person:

A. At random without any cause
B. On reasonable grounds of suspicion
C. Only after obtaining a court order
D. Only with media present

Section 26(3)(g) grants this power but conditions it on “reasonable grounds of suspicion”. This balances enforcement needs with fundamental rights, preventing arbitrary searches and requiring a justifiable basis for the action.

49. What is the minimum Basic Scale for a Sergeant?

A. 05
B. 07
C. 09
D. 11

Section 19(3)(d) specifies the rank for Sergeants. They are the junior-most officers in the hierarchy, typically responsible for assisting senior officers and maintaining security.

50. The administration of the Enforcement Squad vests in the:

A. District Board
B. Home Department
C. Authority
D. Director General

Section 29(1) places the ultimate administrative control of the specialized Enforcement Squads with the central Authority, ensuring uniform standards, policies, and control across all districts.

51. According to Section 2(1)(vv), “State property” includes property under the control of:

A. Only the Federal Government
B. The Government, any Department, or any entity owned/controlled by the Government
C. Only local government bodies
D. Private corporations on lease

The definition is broad and covers all properties controlled by the provincial government, its departments, or any government-owned entities, ensuring wide jurisdiction over public assets.

52. The Authority is empowered to enter into contracts and sue or be sued in its own name because it is a:

A. Government department
B. Body corporate
C. Judicial authority
D. Federal agency

Section 3(2) grants the Authority a legal personality as a body corporate, enabling it to perform legal acts like contracting and litigation independently.

53. Who may be co-opted into the Authority’s meetings as per Section 4(4)?

A. Any public member
B. The Administrative Secretary of the relevant Department
C. A sessions judge
D. A media representative

The Authority may invite the Administrative Secretary of the relevant Department responsible for enforcing Scheduled laws to ensure specialized input during discussions.

54. An independent member may resign by serving a notice of how many months to the Government?

A. 15 days
B. One month
C. Two months
D. Three months

Section 4(6) requires a one-month notice period for resignation, ensuring sufficient time for transition and replacement.

55. The Selection Panel for independent members must complete its selection process within:

A. 15 days
B. 30 days
C. 45 days
D. 60 days

Section 5(2) mandates that the selection process be completed within 30 days to ensure timely appointments and avoid delays.

56. Who provides secretarial support to the Selection Panel?

A. Chief Secretary
B. Director General
C. Secretary of the Authority
D. Home Department

As per Section 5(4), the Director General is responsible for providing administrative and secretarial support to the Selection Panel.

57. A person is disqualified from being an independent member if they:

A. Are under 35 years of age
B. Hold an office in the service of Pakistan
C. Have a master’s degree
D. Are a retired civil servant

Section 6(2)(d) disqualifies serving government employees to maintain the independence and neutrality of the Authority.

58. The Director General is responsible for performing which of the following functions?

A. Appointing independent members
B. Providing secretarial support to the Authority
C. Presiding over Authority meetings
D. Approving the annual budget

Section 8(3) assigns the Director General the role of performing secretarial functions and supporting the Authority in its operations.

59. The Authority may constitute committees under Section 9(1) for:

A. Judicial review
B. Carrying out the purposes of the Act
C. Amending the Schedule
D. Appointing the Director General

The Authority has the power to form committees to assist in achieving the objectives of the Act efficiently.

60. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Authority under Section 10(2)?

A. Appointing Hearing Officers
B. Overseeing policy implementation
C. Trying criminal cases
D. Recommending budget estimates

The Authority’s functions are administrative and regulatory; it does not have judicial powers to try criminal cases.

61. Employees of the Authority may be appointed:

A. Only through the Public Service Commission
B. By the Authority or through the Director General
C. Only by the Chief Minister
D. By the District Board

Section 11(1) allows the Authority or the Director General to appoint employees as needed, ensuring operational flexibility.

62. The Authority may lend or borrow employees from other departments on:

A. Permanent basis
B. Deputation basis
C. Contract basis
D. Volunteer basis

Section 11(3) permits the transfer of employees on deputation, following government policy, to meet staffing needs.

63. The District Enforcement and Regulatory Board is housed at:

A. The Provincial Secretariat
B. The District Headquarters
C. The Enforcement Station
D. The Commissioner’s Office

Section 12(2) specifies that the Board shall be based at the District Headquarters for ease of coordination with district administration.

64. The Secretary of the Board is responsible for:

A. Presiding over meetings
B. Maintaining records of minutes and decisions
C. Appointing Enforcement Officers
D. Approving rewards

As per Section 12(8), the Secretary (ADC-General) is tasked with maintaining complete records of the Board’s proceedings.

65. The Board may constitute committees to:

A. Amend the Act
B. Carry out the purposes of the Act
C. Appoint the Director General
D. Overrule Authority decisions

Section 13 allows the Board to form committees to assist in implementing the Act’s provisions at the district level.

66. The Chairperson of the Board is responsible for executing directions from:

A. The President of Pakistan
B. The Authority
C. The Sessions Judge
D. The Local Government

Section 15(2) mandates that the Chairperson (Deputy Commissioner) executes the directions issued by the Authority.

67. A Hearing Officer must be from which service(s)?

A. Police Service
B. Pakistan Administrative Service or Provincial Management Service
C. Judiciary
D. Foreign Service

Section 16(1) requires Hearing Officers to be senior officers (BS-17 or above) from the administrative services, ensuring expertise in governance and law.

68. A representation before the Hearing Officer can be filed against:

A. A decision of the Supreme Court
B. Removal of encroachments
C. A policy of the Federal Government
D. An act of the President

Section 16(2)(d) allows representations against administrative actions like removal of encroachments under the Act.

69. The Hearing Officer may require a person to execute a bond under:

A. Pakistan Penal Code
B. Chapter VIII of the Code of Criminal Procedure
C. Qanun-e-Shahadat
D. Civil Procedure Code

Section 43 refers to Chapter VIII of CrPC, which deals with security for keeping the peace and for good behavior.

70. The identity of a Whistle-blower must be:

A. Disclosed to the public
B. Kept confidential unless consent is given
C. Published in the newspaper
D. Shared with the accused

Section 60(1) protects the identity of the Whistle-blower and prohibits disclosure without their written consent to ensure their safety and encourage reporting.

Conclusion

The Punjab Enforcement Regulation Act, 2024 (PERA) has been one of the most influential acts of the Punjab competitive examination preparation like SDEO (Sub Divisional Enforcement Officer). By training on these MCQs found in Chapters 1-5, candidates will be in a good position to enhance their understanding of definitions, functions, boards, officers duties, and structures of enforcement. The elaborated answers given to every MCQ will not only enable you to memorize but also create a better understanding of the Act. Practice will provide the confidence to get higher scores in PPSC SDEO/EO exams. Practice, practice, practice and this Act can come out to be your stronghold in the exam.